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Islamic Scholarship

Is the Qur’an Created? Late-Antique Roots of the Debate — Ali Shukri Amin

By Ali Shukri Amin. I first wrote this as comments on r/AcademicQuran, in the thread “What does it means on the Quran being created or uncreated and why is it such a big deal on Islamic discourse?”, copied here as written.

First comment

The createdness of the Quran is a debate that seemingly stems entirely from within the Islamic intellectual tradition but as some scholars (Uthman Khan specific but Yasir Qadhi to a lesser extent) have argued, the philosophical discussions of late antiquity Christians especially in Syria seem to have bearing on the origination & development of the debate.

Mu’tazilism was the first formal Islamic theological school, as the Oxford Handbook to Islamic theology indicates. The question becomes, then: what was Mutazilism formed as a response to?

The uncreatedness of the Logos is a key doctrine in some Christian denominations,

In the beginning was the Logos, and the Logos was with God, and the Logos was God.

It should be noted that Jahm bin Safwan & Ja’d bin Dirham were essentially contemporaneous with Pseudo-Dionysius the Areopagite, the father of Christian apophatic theology.

In the first few centuries of Christian-Muslim discourses, Muslims had no formal responses to the philosophical critiques of Christians. Jahm was the first to attempt a philosophical reformation of Islamic creed, but no work survives him. From what we know, from his detractors, he did not limit himself to the constraints of the Quran.

Mu’tazilism conceived of Allah as not having literal Attributes and His Names being metaphorical (the Asma wa Sifat controversy). This seems to be in direct response to the assertion that God can be partite (the view Christians are accused of). Furthermore, if the Quran can be the uncreated Word of God, why can’t the Logos?

If the physical mus’haf is either uncreated or contains something uncreated, then why can Jesus not be the physical manifestation of the Logos?

Later on, these debates became less of an interfaith defense system and more of a uniquely Islamic controversy. Kalam itself became less and less interested with defending Islam from Christians and Jews, and more with defending it from rationalists, philosophers, and doubters.

Within the Islamic tradition, the createdness of the Quran has huge theological & legal ramifications. If the Qur’an is created, can’t it’s laws be rendered out of date? This was exactly an argument levied by the Abbasid caliphs for changing some of the Shar’i rules. If the Quran is created, why is it mankind cannot create something like it? Is it possible that man has the aptitude but God directly intervenes when we attempt?

If the Quran is created, do the Ayat come from Allah or are they just inspired to Muhammad?

What exactly is uncreated? Is the recitation of human beings uncreated? Are physical masahif uncreated? Are the combinations of letters and words in that specific order uncreated? Or is the meaning uncreated?

If the Quran is uncreated are the Ahruf uncreated? What about the Qira’at? What actually constitutes the Quran that comes from Allah?

The practical consequence of these questions was severe enough to launch the Mihna (inquisition) spanning the entire Islamic empire. It can be argued that Sunnism took on its unique identity in response to Mutazilism. Centuries of scholarship, until this day, have been dedicated to this issue. It is without exaggeration to say hundreds of people died because of the khalq al-Quran controversy, thousands boycotted, imprisoned, or exiled, and millions of people have debated it over the centuries.

The createdness of the Quran is a bulwark issue that Sunnis have used for centuries to determine whether or not someone is even eligible to be a Muslim. Across all Sunni theological schools, anyone who holds that the Quran is created is a disbeliever, and most hold that being unsure also constitutes disbelief. This is despite Mutazili theological treatises still being taught in Shi’i seminaries till this day.

Posted October 11, 2026. Read it on Reddit.

Follow-up comment

The influence of the “Greek” philosophers, i.e. the Greco-Roman philosophical tradition, on Kalam has long been derided by Atharis/Hanbalites. I don’t think the Atharis understood exactly how much of it was actually Christian philosophy/theology as opposed to Greek philosophy directly, and a lot of that is because of the Ashari incorporation of Greek formal logic and the Falasifa going back to Plato, Aristotle, etc.

At a certain point, the historical connection between Kalām responding to the combination of Christianity & Greek philosophy was forgotten and became Kalām responding to agnostic/atheistic rationalism inspired by philosophy.

Posted October 12, 2026. Read it on Reddit.

Find me on Reddit, YouTube and Linktree; more of my work is on my portfolio, alishukriamin.com.

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Islamic Scholarship

Classical Arabic, Hafs and Reading Without Harakat — Ali Shukri Amin

By Ali Shukri Amin. I first wrote this as comments on r/learnArabicSecular, in the thread “Prove me wrong: Saudi Arabic is the closest spoken dialect to Classical Arabic (Fus’ha) today”, copied here as written.

Comment 1

Classical Arabic is often conflated with post-Ottoman Hafs ‘an Asim Arabic, which is codified about 150 years after the time of the Prophet and is not the likeliest representation of the Hijazi Arabic the Quran was Revealed in.

Comment 2

From r/learnarabic, on reading Arabic without harakat:

The more you read with harakat the more you’ll have basic patterns memorized. Learning sarf & nahw will help along with memorizing vocab. That being said, for fluidity, you need a lot of practice /with/ harakat first

Read the thread on Reddit.

Find me on Reddit, YouTube, Letterboxd and Linktree; more of my work is on my portfolio, alishukriamin.com.

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Islamic Scholarship

Reading an Arabic Inscription: Al-Qalam 68:51–52 and “Ali Wali Allah” — Ali Shukri Amin

By Ali Shukri Amin. I first wrote this as comments on r/arabs, in the thread “Can someone please translate these to English? And are they upside down? They were my grandfather’s.”, copied here as written.

Comment 1

On the left:

Al-Qalam 68:51-52

“And indeed, those who disbelieve would almost make you slip with their eyes [i.e., looks] when they hear the message, and they say, “Indeed, he is mad.”

But it is not except a reminder to the worlds.”

The one on the right seems incomplete or like there is writing on the other side but it seems to say,

“And not except upon Allah…”

Typically the phase is completed with,

“Do the believers put their trust”

EDIT: As another user pointed out, on the right it says “Ali wali Allah”

Comment 2

The alif at the center makes me think it’s “ila” and not “wali”.

Comment 3

On further inspection you are correct.

What tripped me up was that I don’t see the dots for the yā on ayn-lam-ya which made me think it’s “ala” and not Ali. At the center there is either an alif hanjariyyah or a regular alif – either way that doesn’t go with either Ali or wali.

It seems they dropped the alif of Allah down, dropped the dots on the ya, and moved the waw outside of Ali. I did initially think it said “Aliyyuun wali Allah

Comment 4

That’s what I thought but it’s Ali wali Allah I’m convinced

Read the thread on Reddit.

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Islamic Scholarship

From Hegel to Marx: Why Zakat Answers a Problem Capitalism Created — Ali Shukri Amin

By Ali Shukri Amin. I first wrote this as comments on r/IslamicFinance, in the thread “A billionaire realizing zakat is necessary to a functioning society”, copied here as written.

First comment

Broad strokes, after Hegel European philosophy split into two camps (continental & analytic). Previously, some form of neoplatonic Christianity & mercantillism were the most popular religion/economic model combo. After the materialist bent of post-Hegelian European philosophy, religion & philosophy were highly decentered for natural philosophy (i.e. sciences).

Although Adam Smith is more or less contemporaneous with Hegel, the full shift from Christianity -> capitalist realism or secular hegemony required the intellectual weakening of noumenal (non-material) Adyan (worldviews). This wasn’t possible without taking dialectical materialism from a philosophical perspective.

Obviously none of these things are in a vacuum, the European enlightenment, Protestant reformation, Calvanism cum Capitalism in the New World, development of secularism, Hegelianism & post-Hegelianism, are all complex multifaceted philosophies/movements/even periods of history.

But, yes, I would argue that you cannot get to modern technofeudalistic capitalism without Hegel (inadvertently of course). Both his ontology/epistemological discourses & his psuedoscientific approach to history either lead to Marxism or capitalism. Hegel IS the bipartisan or left-right basis.

Posted September 30, 2026. Read it on Reddit.

Follow-up comment

Yes, Marx & Engels took Hegel’s dialectic & some components of his political philosophy and married them to philosophical materialism. Instead of dialectic being about Being/nonbeing or ontology/epistemology from an idealist perspective, dialectic was applied as the driving force of history/economics.

It’s not really possible to get Marxism and dialectical materialism without the dialectic, and Marx/Engels are known as “young Hegelians.”

I wouldn’t describe Hegelianism as anti-materialistic. I think that’s misreading Hegel. Hegel attempted to establish in The Phenomenology of Spirit that Kant’s noumenal/phenomenal divide was usless using dialectic, trying to demonstrate that consciousness and perception of phenomenon is really the starting point for philosophy and using dialectic to proceed forwards. Any appreciation of the noumenon is subject to phenomenal experience according to Hegel.

So Hegel used idealism to ground his philosophy in materialism.

If by metaphysical materialism you mean philosophical materialism, it’s definitely related to dialectical materialism. While you could theoretically be a dialectical materialist while rejecting materialism as a broader philosophical outlook, like Christian Marxists or some religious anarchists, I don’t think there’s much doubt that Marx & Engels were also philosophical materialists. To them, even religion had to be viewed through the lense of a materialist reading of history, as a tool for control or at best an outlet for the subjugated – without contending with any religous claims.

If your ontological starting point is consciousness or Being, whether idealistically or materially, then there is a lot less relevance vis a vis the noumenon and/or God as an explanation for anything. Of course Hegel did believe in God and you can read The Science of Logic as an argument for God, but the phenomenological starting point of dialectic didn’t go that way historically.

Posted October 1, 2026. Read it on Reddit.

Find me on Reddit, YouTube and Linktree; more of my work is on my portfolio, alishukriamin.com.

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Islamic Scholarship

Are the Ten Qira’at Mass-Transmitted? — Ali Shukri Amin

By Ali Shukri Amin. I first wrote this as a comment on r/AcademicQuran, in the thread “Have each of the 10 recitations been mass transmitted at every level of the chain?”, copied here as written.

I don’t think sanad & tawattur are a helpful way to think about the authenticity of recitations. These are hadith concepts which were back projected onto the Qira’at, which moreso used a license (ijaza) system. Since the Uthmanic text was almost unanimously accepted, the Qira’at became about acceptable recitations not exact transmission.

Ibn al-Jazari & Abu Bakr b. Mujahid did not claim the Qira’at are tawattur and even by hadith standards they wouldn’t be.

Read the thread on Reddit.

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Islamic Scholarship

Ahruf, Qira’at and Variants in the Qur’an — Ali Shukri Amin

By Ali Shukri Amin. I first wrote this as a comment on r/AcademicQuran, in the thread “All Abrahamic Scriptures have variants. Quran variants don't pose problems. I don't understand why people are saying variants are problematic. Even Muhammad approved all of them.”, copied here as written.

While I commend your effort to understand this issue, there are a few places in your comment which seem to not yet fully grasp what is going on here. You seem to be conflating Ahruf (a theological issue stemming from a hadith that HCM scholars would typically be skeptical of), Qira’at (a historical phenomenon of reading traditions), and the codification of the Uthmanic text (a primarily consonantal text with some dotting/vowelization in particularly ambiguous areas).

It is no mystery to anyone that Qurra, grammatians, theologians, and jurists had preferred readings and did tarjīĥ (comparative analysis/critique) of multiple readings across Qira’at (some that were canonized, others that weren’t).

You seem to think that the differences in Qira’at are significant additions in the form of new words after standardization which is provably historically inaccurate. From Uthman onwards Islamic history is very well documented and there’s no reason to think the Quran changed as drastically as you’re alluding to after Uthman.

The challenge as to the original Quran is squarely within the pre-Uthmanic era, i.e. which of the consonantal & vowelization differences directly came from Muhammad. It doesn’t seem feasible the Prophet read with all of them. However, it also doesn’t seem that this was really a concern of the early Qurra so long as their recitation generally followed a few rules.

Posted September 28, 2026. Read it on Reddit.

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Islamic Scholarship

Muhammad as the “Son of Man”? Maqam Mahmud in Early Athari Theology — Ali Shukri Amin

By Ali Shukri Amin. I first wrote this as comments on r/AcademicQuran, in the thread “Muhammad as the Son of Man?”, copied here as written.

First comment

I can’t speak to the Son of Man prophecy in the Bible but you did make a mistake with respect to the hadith.

There was a lot of debate in early Athari theology with respect to the concept of “Maqām Mahmūd.” (The Praised Station, the word Mahmud coming from the same trilateral root as Muhammad, Mīm-Ĥa-Dāl)

Al-Isra’ 17:79

And from [part of] the night, pray[1] with it [i.e., recitation of the Qur’ān] as additional [worship] for you; it is expected that[2] your Lord will resurrect you to a praised station. [Maqaman Mahmudan]

There are singular narrations which are maqtu’ (not attributed to the prophet himself) which states that the Maqam Mahmud means the Prophet will sit on the Throne of God.

According to Jon Hoover,

Al-Barbahārī may have been involved in riots that began in 317/929 over interpretation of the divine address to the Prophet Muḥammad ‘Perhaps your Lord will raise you up to a praiseworthy station’ (Q 17: 79). Al-Barbahārī understood this to mean that God would seat Muḥammad on the Throne beside Himself whereas semi-rationalists of the time—including followers of the renowned Qurʾān commentator al-Ṭabarī (d. 310/923)—preferred to interpret this metaphorically as Muḥammad’s right to intercede for grave sinners (Melchert 2012). With the Būyid takeover of Baghdad in 334/945, Ḥanbalī animosities turned against the Shīʿīs as well, and Ḥanbalīs engaged in numerous attacks on Shīʿīs, Kalām theologians, and others well into the seventh/thirteenth century. M. Cook attributes this Ḥanbalī social power to their great numbers and a weakened state. Additionally, with the rise of the Būyids and then later the Saljuq conquest of Baghdad in 447/1055, the Ḥanbalīs and the ʿAbbāsid caliphs found common cause in undermining those foreign rulers (Sabarī 1981: 101–20; Cook 2000: 115–28).

[Cambridge Companion to Islamic Theology, Hanbali Theology, pg. 6]

There were, and still are, a swathe of Muslims whom believe Muhammad will sit on God’s Throne on the Day of Judgement. Over time it has been rendered a minority view in Islamic theology, and even most Atharis/Hanbalis today do not consider it a primary point of contention, but it’s there.

Of course this was never interpreted to suggest the level of power or divinity that your understanding of the Biblical “Son of Man” entails.

Posted September 21, 2026. Read it on Reddit.

Follow-up comment

Your argument is predicated on the historicity of the Son of Man claims in the Old Testament and the New Testament, believing that they do apply to Jesus, and that Muslims recognize the historicity of those two texts. This argument can only come from a Christian theological background. A Jew, for example, would not argue that Jesus is the Son of Man and their text is older than the New Testament. In which case, a Jew would argue that you accept the Torah, the Torah definitely does not indicate that Jesus is the Son of Man, and in fact Jesus cannot be a prophet according to Judaic law.

So your argument is a theological one, not a historical one. Even if you yourself subscribe to Christian theology, that’s fine, but at least present some robust argumentation here.

Posted September 22, 2026. Read it on Reddit.

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Islamic Scholarship

Literalism, Metaphor and Cognition: A Question for Islamic Studies — Ali Shukri Amin

By Ali Shukri Amin. I first wrote this as comments on r/AcademicQuran, in the thread “AMA with Abdullah Ansar. I work on early Islamic intellectual history, cognitive science, Qurʾānic studies, Shīʿī traditions, and Ḥadīth transmission.”, copied here as written.

Comment 1

Hey Abdullah thanks for this AMA.

I have an armchair theory about cognitive science & Islamic studies that I’d love to get your take on.

It seems to me there is some kind of an analytic versus syncretic gradient in cognition which is mostly either culturally or biologically or developmentally informed? However this gradient seems to impact cognition and specifically interpretative work.

For example the Sifat controversy across Islamic thought. Why do some people lean towards literalism naturally versus metaphorical meanings of texts?

I see this pattern everywhere, in every human endeavor, but I’m not sure how it could be quantified or studied in any objective manner (or if the thesis could be validated or invalidated).

What are your thoughts? Is there a developmental or cognitive component to the degree of literalism or atomistic thinking a person is naturally inclined towards?

Comment 2

This is perfect. Exactly what I’ve been thinking about. Going to give it a read but glad to see it is a real observed phenomenon

Originally posted on Reddit.

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Islamic Scholarship

Images of Living Things in Islamic Law — Ali Shukri Amin

By Ali Shukri Amin. I first wrote this as a comment on r/BookshelvesDetective, in the thread “Need more space”, copied here as written.

Depictions of living things are not seen as “blasphemy” even in the strictest schools of Islamic jurisprudence.

Primarily the Hanbali school, although scholars from other schools, prohibited depicting living things that have a soul on the basis of a narration of a Prophetic companion ibn ‘Abbas wherein he saw a painter at the marketplace and told him that the Prophet Muhammad said,

Every maker of graven images will be in Hellfire. Every image he made will be given a soul to punish him in Hell.

Ibn Abbas interpreted this broadly to mean any depiction of a living thing with a soul (i.e. animals).

However, blasphemy would be akin to shirk (polytheism), kufr (disbelief), or nifaq (hypocrisy). Merely creating an image, despite how stern the hadith may seem, in no way rises to that level.

It is moreso akin to a minor sin, with the strictest possible interpretation being that it is a major sin.

Based on the wording of this narration however most scholars disagreed with ibn Abbas and took the meaning of craven images to be images pertaining to idolatry specifically.

Posted September 16, 2026. Read it on Reddit.

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Islamic Scholarship

What Can Historians Know About Early Readings of These Verses? — Ali Shukri Amin

By Ali Shukri Amin. I first wrote this as a comment on r/AcademicQuran, in the thread “Academically speaking, what are the possible meanings of Quranic mentions of Allah's "hands," "eyes," "face," and so on? Did early Muslims and Muslim theologians understand them literally or figuratively? How do academics understand those mentions?”, copied here as written.

There is not enough historical evidence to know how early Muslims or even the Quranic Author interpreted these Verses. Considering that some of these expressions seem to be figures of speech, others seem to be more literal, it seems more likely that the Quranic Author & the immediate audience did not focus on the anthropomorphic versus literal debate. It was not on their radar, so to speak.

When Muslim scholars began coming into contact with practitioners of other faiths or scholars of other milleus, they were exposed to debates and ideas from their intellectual traditions. That’s not to say much of the anthropomorphic versus literal debate is not indigenous to the Islamic tradition, but it did not happen in a vaccum.

This seems to be moreso a question of cognitive orientation and the philosophy of language than even an Islamic or historical question. Why do some people, broadly speaking, interpret words more literally? Why do others interpret them more figuratively?

This question spans cultures and, while the Sifat controversy is a microcosm, I don’t believe is the first or only battleground.

Quite simply, if the early Muslims or the Quranic Author had an opinion on literalism/anthropomorphism versus figurative/metaphorical depictions of God’s “body parts” as rendered in the Quran – it just isn’t clear from the sources. I would go so far as to say it isn’t even clear in the Sunni corpus, taking the historicity of hadith for granted, let alone the corpus that HCM academics consider to be reliable.

We don’t see these discussions in Islamic history until shortly before the time of the Mu’tazilah, when we know that especially near Eastern Greco-Roman influenced Christian theology & philosophy was already being grappled with.

The fact that the apocryphal story of Jahm b. Safwan states he apostated after engaging with Buddhists and used rationalist to return to Islam, founding “Jahmism”, is very telling. Whether or not the story is true, the idea that Muslim intellectuals were grappling with intellectual traditions posing these problems and having to come up with solutions may indicate that a lot of these “Islamic” debates are far reaching

Edit:

u/abdullah_ansar was able to point me in the direction of:

Esteban Freidin and Luz Acera Martini, “An Analytic Cognitive Style Negatively Predicts a More Literal but Not a More Symbolic Religiosity Type,” The International Journal for the Psychology of Religion 32, no. 1 (2022): 31–52, https://doi.org/10.1080/10508619.2020.1868197.

Posted September 15, 2026. Read it on Reddit.

Find me on Reddit, YouTube and Linktree; more of my work is on my portfolio, alishukriamin.com.